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Old 11-14-2009, 10:11 AM
Niles_64 Niles_64 is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by r.samanta View Post
i think i have understood your problem. u are trying to solve the problem by phase difference instead of N(no of wavelengths)
in that case , look at my earlier solution , i think u have understood by now that you simply need to multiply the equation by 2 pi(remember 1 wavelength= 2 pi?)to get the corresponding phase difference. so phi(phase difference)=2 pi(2L glass n/lambda)- 2 pi(2L air/ lambda)
when you differentiate, L air is constant(no expansion for air as i told u earlier) so right part is zero.
finally 2 pi phase difference creates 1 fringe shift. after differentiating , divide by 2 pi -u get fringe shifts and will get the same answer.
But why do I have to differentiate the phase difference? We said that for each 2Pi difference in phase, there is 1 fringe shift, so why are we differentiating the phase difference, which gives us the change in the phase difference / minute?
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